H
Hern
10 Mar 2022 03:04
Link
When a public company distributes money because of overfull coffers, the distribution is not actually given to the country in any respect.
Example: June 4669, the public company makes a $40B distribution. Its profit transfer is at 0%.
The country in which the company resides controls 85% of the shares.
The country has no stake in any other public company within the country.
The country receives $0 dividends for the months of May, June and July.
The profit paid by state owned corporations does not indicate any $40B increase for the month of June or July (it is only ~$20B on average.)
Unfortunately, I don't have any other stakes in the company to analyze if the $40B was split solely among the 15% investment funds (though that would be difficult anyways given lack of tools for investment fund accounting.) Still, even if that were the case, there's no real reason for that.
As far as I can tell, this money has outright disappeared.
Example: June 4669, the public company makes a $40B distribution. Its profit transfer is at 0%.
The country in which the company resides controls 85% of the shares.
The country has no stake in any other public company within the country.
The country receives $0 dividends for the months of May, June and July.
The profit paid by state owned corporations does not indicate any $40B increase for the month of June or July (it is only ~$20B on average.)
Unfortunately, I don't have any other stakes in the company to analyze if the $40B was split solely among the 15% investment funds (though that would be difficult anyways given lack of tools for investment fund accounting.) Still, even if that were the case, there's no real reason for that.
As far as I can tell, this money has outright disappeared.


